Reading guide · Proof index

Inverse and implicit function theorems

Jiří Lebl, Basic Analysis I–II, version 6.3. Free author edition of this section. Selection and attribution · Notation.

L8.5.1: C1 inverse theorem, open image, derivative formula and continuity.

Proof.

Write A=f′(p).A = f'(p)\text{.} As f′f' is continuous, there is an open ball VV centered at pp such that
∥A−f′(x)∥<12∥A−1∥for all x∈V.\begin{equation*} \bnorm{A-f'(x)} < \frac{1}{2\snorm{A^{-1}}} \qquad \text{for all } x \in V. \end{equation*}
Consequently, the derivative f′(x)f'(x) is invertible for all x∈Vx \in V by Proposition 8.2.6.
Given y∈Rn,y \in \R^n\text{,} define φy ⁣:V→Rn\varphi_y \colon V \to \R^n by
φy(x)≔x+A−1(y−f(x)).\begin{equation*} \varphi_y (x) \coloneqq x + A^{-1}\bigl(y-f(x)\bigr) . \end{equation*}
As A−1A^{-1} is one-to-one, φy(x)=x\varphi_y(x) = x (xx is a fixed point) if and only if y−f(x)=0,y-f(x) = 0\text{,} or in other words f(x)=y.f(x)=y\text{.} Using the chain rule, we obtain
φy′(x)=I−A−1f′(x)=A−1(A−f′(x)).\begin{equation*} \varphi_y'(x) = I - A^{-1} f'(x) = A^{-1} \bigl( A-f'(x) \bigr) . \end{equation*}
So for x∈V,x \in V\text{,} we have
∥φy′(x)∥≤∥A−1∥ ∥A−f′(x)∥<1 ⁣/ ⁣2.\begin{equation*} \bnorm{\varphi_y'(x)} \leq \snorm{A^{-1}} \, \bnorm{A-f'(x)} < \nicefrac{1}{2} . \end{equation*}
As VV is a ball, it is convex. Hence,
∥φy(x1)−φy(x2)∥≤12∥x1−x2∥for all x1,x2∈V.\begin{equation*} \bnorm{\varphi_y(x_1)-\varphi_y(x_2)} \leq \frac{1}{2} \snorm{x_1-x_2} \qquad \text{for all } x_1,x_2 \in V. \end{equation*}
In other words, φy\varphi_y is a contraction defined on V,V\text{,} though we so far do not know what is the range of φy.\varphi_y\text{.} We cannot yet apply the fixed point theorem, but we can say that φy\varphi_y has at most one fixed point in V:V\text{:} If φy(x1)=x1\varphi_y(x_1) = x_1 and φy(x2)=x2,\varphi_y(x_2) = x_2\text{,} then ∥x1−x2∥=∥φy(x1)−φy(x2)∥≤12∥x1−x2∥,\snorm{x_1-x_2} = \bnorm{\varphi_y(x_1)-\varphi_y(x_2)} \leq \frac{1}{2} \snorm{x_1-x_2}\text{,} so x1=x2.x_1 = x_2\text{.} That is, there exists at most one x∈Vx \in V such that f(x)=y,f(x) = y\text{,} and so f∣Vf|_V is one-to-one.
Let W≔f(V)W \coloneqq f(V) and let g ⁣:W→Vg \colon W \to V be the inverse of f∣V.f|_V\text{.} We need to show that WW is open. Take a y0∈W.y_0 \in W\text{.} There is a unique x0∈Vx_0 \in V such that f(x0)=y0.f(x_0) = y_0\text{.} Let r>0r > 0 be small enough such that the closed ball C(x0,r)⊂VC(x_0,r) \subset V (such r>0r > 0 exists as VV is open).
Suppose yy is such that
∥y−y0∥<r2∥A−1∥.\begin{equation*} \snorm{y-y_0} < \frac{r}{2\snorm{A^{-1}}} . \end{equation*}
If we show that y∈W,y \in W\text{,} then we have shown that WW is open. If x1∈C(x0,r),x_1 \in C(x_0,r)\text{,} then
∥φy(x1)−x0∥≤∥φy(x1)−φy(x0)∥+∥φy(x0)−x0∥≤12∥x1−x0∥+∥A−1(y−y0)∥≤12r+∥A−1∥ ∥y−y0∥<12r+∥A−1∥r2∥A−1∥=r.\begin{equation*} \begin{split} \bnorm{\varphi_y(x_1)-x_0} & \leq \bnorm{\varphi_y(x_1)-\varphi_y(x_0)} + \bnorm{\varphi_y(x_0)-x_0} \\ & \leq \frac{1}{2}\snorm{x_1-x_0} + \bnorm{A^{-1}(y-y_0)} \\ & \leq \frac{1}{2}r + \snorm{A^{-1}} \, \snorm{y-y_0} \\ & < \frac{1}{2}r + \snorm{A^{-1}} \frac{r}{2\snorm{A^{-1}}} = r . \end{split} \end{equation*}
So φy\varphi_y takes C(x0,r)C(x_0,r) into B(x0,r)⊂C(x0,r).B(x_0,r) \subset C(x_0,r)\text{.} It is a contraction on C(x0,r)C(x_0,r) and C(x0,r)C(x_0,r) is complete (closed subset of Rn\R^n is complete). Apply the contraction mapping principle to obtain a fixed point x,x\text{,} i.e. φy(x)=x.\varphi_y(x) = x\text{.} That is, f(x)=y,f(x) = y\text{,} and y∈f(C(x0,r))⊂f(V)=W.y \in f\bigl(C(x_0,r)\bigr) \subset f(V) = W\text{.} Therefore, WW is open.
Next we need to show that gg is continuously differentiable and compute its derivative. First, let us show that it is differentiable. Let y∈Wy \in W and k∈Rn,k \in \R^n\text{,} k≠0,k \neq 0\text{,} such that y+k∈W.y+k \in W\text{.} Because f∣Vf|_V is a one-to-one and onto mapping of VV onto W,W\text{,} there are unique x∈Vx \in V and h∈Rn,h \in \R^n\text{,} h≠0h \neq 0 and x+h∈V,x+h \in V\text{,} such that f(x)=yf(x) = y and f(x+h)=y+k.f(x+h) = y+k\text{.} In other words, g(y)=xg(y) = x and g(y+k)=x+h.g(y+k) = x+h\text{.} See Figure 8.12.

A diagram of two sets and mappings between them. On the left is a shaded set V with dotted boundary and the points x plus h and x marked. On the right is a shaded set W with the points y plus k and y marked. Two arrows labeled f go from left to right one going from the point x plus h to the point y plus k and one going from the point x to the point y. Two arrows labeled g go the opposite way between the same points.
Figure 8.12. Proving that gg is differentiable.

We can still squeeze some information from the fact that φy\varphi_y is a contraction.
φy(x+h)−φy(x)=h+A−1(f(x)−f(x+h))=h−A−1k.\begin{equation*} \varphi_y(x+h)-\varphi_y(x) = h + A^{-1} \bigl( f(x)-f(x+h) \bigr) = h - A^{-1} k . \end{equation*}
So
∥h−A−1k∥=∥φy(x+h)−φy(x)∥≤12∥x+h−x∥=∥h∥2.\begin{equation*} \snorm{h-A^{-1}k} = \bnorm{\varphi_y(x+h)-\varphi_y(x)} \leq \frac{1}{2}\snorm{x+h-x} = \frac{\snorm{h}}{2}. \end{equation*}
By the inverse triangle inequality, ∥h∥−∥A−1k∥≤12∥h∥.\snorm{h} - \snorm{A^{-1}k} \leq \frac{1}{2}\snorm{h}\text{.} So
∥h∥≤2∥A−1k∥≤2∥A−1∥ ∥k∥.\begin{equation*} \snorm{h} \leq 2 \snorm{A^{-1}k} \leq 2 \snorm{A^{-1}} \, \snorm{k}. \end{equation*}
In particular, as kk goes to 0, so does h.h\text{.}
As x∈V,x \in V\text{,} we find that f′(x)f'(x) is invertible. Let B≔(f′(x))−1,B \coloneqq \bigl(f'(x)\bigr)^{-1}\text{,} which is what we think the derivative of gg at yy is. Then
∥g(y+k)−g(y)−Bk∥∥k∥=∥h−Bk∥∥k∥=∥h−B(f(x+h)−f(x))∥∥k∥=∥B(f(x+h)−f(x)−f′(x)h)∥∥k∥≤∥B∥∥h∥∥k∥ ∥f(x+h)−f(x)−f′(x)h∥∥h∥≤2∥B∥ ∥A−1∥∥f(x+h)−f(x)−f′(x)h∥∥h∥.\begin{equation*} \begin{split} \frac{\bnorm{g(y+k)-g(y)-Bk}}{\snorm{k}} & = \frac{\snorm{h-Bk}}{\snorm{k}} \\ & = \frac{\bnorm{h-B\bigl(f(x+h)-f(x)\bigr)}}{\snorm{k}} \\ & = \frac{\bnorm{B\bigl(f(x+h)-f(x)-f'(x)h\bigr)}}{\snorm{k}} \\ & \leq \snorm{B} \frac{\snorm{h}}{\snorm{k}}\, \frac{\bnorm{f(x+h)-f(x)-f'(x)h}}{\snorm{h}} \\ & \leq 2\snorm{B} \, \snorm{A^{-1}} \frac{\bnorm{f(x+h)-f(x)-f'(x)h}}{\snorm{h}} . \end{split} \end{equation*}
As kk goes to 0, so does h.h\text{.} So the right-hand side goes to 0 as ff is differentiable, and hence the left-hand side also goes to 0. And BB is precisely what we wanted g′(y)g'(y) to be.
We have gg is differentiable, let us show it is C1(W).C^1(W)\text{.} The function g ⁣:W→Vg \colon W \to V is continuous (it is differentiable), f′f' is a continuous function from VV to L(Rn),L(\R^n)\text{,} and X↦X−1X \mapsto X^{-1} is a continuous function on the set of invertible operators. As g′(y)=(f′(g(y)))−1g'(y) = {\bigl( f'\bigl(g(y)\bigr)\bigr)}^{-1} is the composition of these three continuous functions, it is continuous.

L8.5.6: C1 implicit theorem on a genuine product neighbourhood, with P10.6 domain correction.

Proof.

Define F ⁣:U→Rn+mF \colon U \to \R^{n+m} by F(x,y)≔(x,f(x,y)).F(x,y) \coloneqq \bigl(x,f(x,y)\bigr)\text{.} It is clear that FF is C1,C^1\text{,} and we want to show that its derivative at (p,q)(p,q) is invertible. Let us compute the derivative. The quotient
∥f(p+h,q+k)−f(p,q)−Axh−Ayk∥∥(h,k)∥\begin{equation*} \frac{\bnorm{f(p+h,q+k) - f(p,q) - A_x h - A_y k}}{\bnorm{(h,k)}} \end{equation*}
goes to zero as ∥(h,k)∥=∥h∥2+∥k∥2\bnorm{(h,k)} = \sqrt{\snorm{h}^2+\snorm{k}^2} goes to zero. But then so does
∥F(p+h,q+k)−F(p,q)−(h,Axh+Ayk)∥∥(h,k)∥=∥(h,f(p+h,q+k)−f(p,q))−(h,Axh+Ayk)∥∥(h,k)∥=∥f(p+h,q+k)−f(p,q)−Axh−Ayk∥∥(h,k)∥.\begin{gathered} \frac{\bnorm{F(p+h,q+k)-F(p,q) - (h,A_x h+A_y k)}}{\bnorm{(h,k)}} \\ \begin{aligned} & = \frac{\bnorm{\bigl(h,f(p+h,q+k)-f(p,q)\bigr) - (h,A_x h+A_y k)}}{\bnorm{(h,k)}} \\ & = \frac{\bnorm{f(p+h,q+k) - f(p,q) - A_x h - A_y k}}{\bnorm{(h,k)}} . \end{aligned} \end{gathered}
So the derivative of FF at (p,q)(p,q) takes (h,k)(h,k) to (h,Axh+Ayk).(h,A_x h+A_y k)\text{.} In block matrix form, it is [I0AxAy].\left[\begin{smallmatrix}I & 0\\A_x & A_y\end{smallmatrix}\right]\text{.} If (h,Axh+Ayk)=(0,0),(h,A_x h+A_y k) = (0,0)\text{,} then h=0,h=0\text{,} and so Ayk=0.A_y k = 0\text{.} As AyA_y is one-to-one, k=0.k=0\text{.} Thus F′(p,q)F'(p,q) is one-to-one, and hence invertible. We apply the inverse function theorem.
That is, there exists an open set V⊂Rn+mV \subset \R^{n+m} with F(p,q)=(p,0)∈V,F(p,q) = (p,0) \in V\text{,} and a C1C^1 mapping G ⁣:V→Rn+m,G \colon V \to \R^{n+m}\text{,} such that F(G(x,s))=(x,s)F\bigl(G(x,s)\bigr) = (x,s) for all (x,s)∈V,(x,s) \in V\text{,} GG is one-to-one, and G(V)G(V) is open. Write G=(G1,G2)G = (G_1,G_2) (the first nn and the next mm components of GG). Then
F(G1(x,s),G2(x,s))=(G1(x,s),f(G1(x,s),G2(x,s)))=(x,s).\begin{equation*} F\bigl(G_1(x,s),G_2(x,s)\bigr) = \Bigl(G_1(x,s),f\bigl(G_1(x,s),G_2(x,s) \bigr)\Bigr) = (x,s) . \end{equation*}
So x=G1(x,s)x = G_1(x,s) and f(G1(x,s),G2(x,s))=f(x,G2(x,s))=s.f\bigl(G_1(x,s),G_2(x,s)\bigr) = f\bigl(x,G_2(x,s)\bigr) = s\text{.} Plugging in s=0,s=0\text{,} we obtain
f(x,G2(x,0))=0.\begin{equation*} f\bigl(x,G_2(x,0)\bigr) = 0 . \end{equation*}
As the set G(V)G(V) is open and (p,q)∈G(V),(p,q) \in G(V)\text{,} there exist some open sets W~\widetilde{W} and W′W' such that W~×W′⊂G(V)\widetilde{W} \times W' \subset G(V) with p∈W~p \in \widetilde{W} and q∈W′.q \in W'\text{.} Take W≔{x∈W~:G2(x,0)∈W′}.W \coloneqq \bigl\{ x \in \widetilde{W} : G_2(x,0) \in W' \bigr\}\text{.} The function that takes xx to G2(x,0)G_2(x,0) is continuous and therefore WW is open. Define g ⁣:W→Rmg \colon W \to \R^m by g(x)≔G2(x,0),g(x) \coloneqq G_2(x,0)\text{,} which is the gg in the theorem. The fact that g(x)g(x) is the unique point in W′W' follows because W×W′⊂G(V)W \times W' \subset G(V) and GG is one-to-one.
Next, differentiate
x↦f(x,g(x))\begin{equation*} x\mapsto f\bigl(x,g(x)\bigr) \end{equation*}
at p,p\text{,} which is the zero map, so its derivative is zero. Using the chain rule,
0=A(h,g′(p)h)=Axh+Ayg′(p)h\begin{equation*} 0 = A\bigl(h,g'(p)h\bigr) = A_xh + A_yg'(p)h \end{equation*}
for all h∈Rn,h \in \R^{n}\text{,} and we obtain the desired derivative for g.g\text{.}